Consider the case where \(n = 3\). Let \(X_1\), \(X_2\), and \(X_3\) be three independent Bernoulli random variables, each with a probability of success \(p\). Define \(X = X_1 + X_2 + X_3\), which represents a binomial random variable.

- The possible values of \(X\) are \(0, 1, 2, 3\).
- Probability calculations:
- \(\begin{aligned}[t] P(X = 0) &= P(X_1 = 0 \text{ and } X_2 = 0 \text{ and } X_3 = 0) \\ &= P(X_1 = 0) P(X_2 = 0) P(X_3 = 0) \quad \text{(since \)X_1, X_2, X_3\( are independent)} \\ &= (1-p)^3 \\ &= \binom{3}{0} p^0 (1-p)^3 \end{aligned}\)
- \(\begin{aligned}[t] P(X = 1) &= P(X_1 = 1 \text{ and } X_2 = 0 \text{ and } X_3 = 0) + P(X_1 = 0 \text{ and } X_2 = 1 \text{ and } X_3 = 0) \\ &\quad + P(X_1 = 0 \text{ and } X_2 = 0 \text{ and } X_3 = 1) \\ &= p (1-p)^2 + p (1-p)^2 + p (1-p)^2 \\ &= 3 p (1-p)^2 \\ &= \binom{3}{1} p^1 (1-p)^2 \end{aligned}\)
- \(\begin{aligned}[t] P(X = 2) &= P(X_1 = 1 \text{ and } X_2 = 1 \text{ and } X_3 = 0) + P(X_1 = 1 \text{ and } X_2 = 0 \text{ and } X_3 = 1) \\ &\quad + P(X_1 = 0 \text{ and } X_2 = 1 \text{ and } X_3 = 1) \\ &= p^2 (1-p) + p^2 (1-p) + p^2 (1-p) \\ &= 3 p^2 (1-p) \\ &= \binom{3}{2} p^2 (1-p)^1 \end{aligned}\)
- \(\begin{aligned}[t] P(X = 3) &= P(X_1 = 1 \text{ and } X_2 = 1 \text{ and } X_3 = 1) \\ &= p^3 \\ &= \binom{3}{3} p^3 (1-p)^0 \end{aligned}\)
Thus, \(P(X = x) = \binom{3}{x} p^x (1-p)^{3-x}\) for \(x = 0, 1, 2, 3\), matching the binomial distribution form.
The logic generalizes for any \(n\). To obtain exactly \(x\) successes, we must choose \(x\) of the \(n\) trials to be successes, which can be done in \(\binom{n}{x}\) ways. Each specific arrangement of \(x\) successes and \(n-x\) failures has a probability of \(p^x (1-p)^{n-x}\). By the addition rule, the total probability is the sum over all these arrangements, resulting in \(P(X=x) = \binom{n}{x}p^x (1-p)^{n-x}\).